Question Paper of General Ability, Intelligence and Professional Skills for Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandant (Executive Limited) Departmental Competitive Exam, 2018
Q1. Which of the following statements about LaQ-shya- a Labour Room Quality Improvement Initiative, launched recently by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is/are correct ?
- The initiative plans to conduct quality certification of labour rooms and also to incentivize facilities achieving the targets outlined.
- The goal of this initiative is to reduce preventable maternal and new-born mortality, morbidity and stillbirths associated with the care around delivery in Labour Room and Maternity OT.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q2. The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of the Indian Army is located at
(a) Wellington (b) Dehradun
(c) Vairengte (d) Gulmarg
Q3. Submarine INS Kalvari which was commissi-oned into the Indian Navy in December 2017 was built with techno-logical collaboration with
(a) Russia (b) Japan
(c) France (d) USA
Q4. Sri Lanka has recently handed over its southern strategic port Hamb-antota on a 99-year lease to which one of the following countries ?
(a) India (b) China
(c) Pakistan (d) USA
Q5. Heena Sidhu is associated with which one of the following sports ?
(a) Badminton (b) Wrestling
(c) Shooting (d) Archery
Q6. The Central Industrial Security Force was constituted
(a) under an Act of the Parliament.
(b) as per a resolution of the Cabinet.
(c) as per an executive order issued by the Ministry of Defence.
(d) as per an executive order issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q7. The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force is appointed by the
(a) Bureau of Public Enterprises
(b) National Security Council Secretariat
(c) Central Government
(d) Cabinet Committee on Security
Q8. Which of the following fall/s within the scope of technical consultancy services rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force ?
(a) Studying the industrial security and fire protection related problems and suggesting appropriate solutions
(b) Preparing disaster management and contingency plan and conducting rehearsals for such plans
(c) Planning and designing of communication networks and preparation of related operations instructions
(d) All of the above
Q9. Which one of the following is in accordance with the procedure prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 in relation to an arrest made by any member of the Force ?
(a) Keep the arrested person in custody for not more than 48 hours for interrogation and release him/her if, prima facie, no criminal case is made out against the detainee
(b) Lodge a First Information Report with the local police if, prima facie, a criminal case is made out against the arrested person
(c) Hand over the arrested person to the Chief Security Officer of the industrial establishment concerned for such action as deemed fit
(d) Hand over the arrested person to a Police Officer or have him/her taken to the nearest police station without any unnecessary delay
Q10. For disciplinary procee-dings, the supervisory officers of the Central Industrial Security Force are governed by which of the following ?
(a) National Security Act
(b) Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules
(c) Rules applicable to the officers of the Central Government of the corresponding class
(d) Indian Penal Code
Q11. A person who for any reason ceases to be a member of the Central Industrial Security Force does not have to surrender which one of the following items ?
(a) The certificate of appointment
(b) Arms issued to him/her
(c) Clothing issued to him/her while in service
(d) Any appreciation letter issued to him during his service
Q12. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the penalty for neglect of duty prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Act ?
(a) A member of the Force convicted of neglect of duty cannot be punished with imprisonment.
(b) The offence of neglect of duty is cognizable and non-bailable, not with standing anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(c) The Central Government may invest the Comman-dant with the powers of a Magistrate for trying the offence of neglect of duty.
(d) There is no absolute bar on an offence punishable under the Act to be tried by an ordinary criminal court.
Q13. If, during the probation period of a member of the Central Industrial Security Force, the appointing authority is of the opinion that the member is not fit for permanent appointment, which one of the following actions cannot be taken by the appointing authority ?
(a) The appointing authority may terminate his/her services after giving one month's notice.
(b) The appointing authority may terminate his/her services with immediate effect but after giving three months' pay in lieu of the aforesaid notice.
(c) The appointing authority may revert him/her to the rank from which he/she was promoted.
(d) The appointing authority may repatriate him/her to his/her parent department, as the case may be.
Q14. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to an order of suspension of an enrolled member of the Central Industrial Security Force ?
(a) An enrolled member of the Force is deemed to have been placed under suspension by an order of the appointing authority with effect from the date of detention if he/she is detained in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period exceeding 48 hours.
(b) An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made continues to remain in force until it is modified or revoked by the authority competent to do so.
(c) An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made can be modified or revoked at any time by any authority to which the authority who had issued the order of suspension is subordinate.
(d) An enrolled member cannot be kept under suspension for more than 180 days.
Q15. Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 ?
(a) Withholding of promotion
(b) Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government
(c) Withholding of increment of pay
(d) Fine of an amount not exceeding seven days' pay
Q16. On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be granted as per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?
(a) Arrest of a criminal
(b) Making exceptionally good enquiries
(c) Doing general good work
(d) Doing extra hard work in connection with the protection, safeguard and security of an industrial undertaking
Q17. What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counter the possible consequences arising from communi-cated threat or discovery of an explosive device at an airport ?
(a) High alert
(b) Bomb threat contingency plan
(c) Counter terror contingency plan
(d) Red alert
Q18. While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(a) Select a place from where you can see everything without being seen yourself
(b) The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed
(c) The observation post should be at a point where it can be reached easily and from where you can move out quickly
(d) The observation post should be far from the skyline
Q19. Which of the following is/ are the duty/duties of the ROP?
(a) To secure the road route from ambush
(b) To secure the road route from land mines and lEDs
(c) To keep the route secure till the convoy has passed completely
(d) All of the above
Q20. Which one of the follow-ing is not necessary for perimeter security ?
(a) CCTV
(b) Water moat
(c) Alarm system
(d) Lighting
Q21. Which one of the following should not be used as first aid to stop bleeding of the injured VIP?
(a) Direct pressure
(b) Elevation used with Direct Pressure
(c) Pressure bandages
(d) Inject Morphine to ease pain immediately
Q22. You have to establish a CISF post in one of the mines areas where the CISF is deployed. Several things have to be kept in mind in the process. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(a) The post should be on dominating ground from where there is a good line of fire
(b) The post should be at a place where commimic-ation and road link is good
(c) The post should be at a place where water is available close by
(d) The post should be visible to all
Q23. As a commandant, which of the following has/have to be told to the convoy which is going from one area to another ?
(a) Brief the men about the condition of the road
(b) If ROP has been deployed, then the convoy in-charge should be briefed about its position
(c) Possible ambush sites and dangerous areas should be identified
(d) All of the above
Q24. Which one of the following organizations has been designated as the Counter Hijack Task Force by the Govern-ment of India ?
(a) BCAS (b) CISF
(c) NSG (d) SPG
Q25. What is a fire door ?
(a) A door designated for entry of firemen into a building for fire-fighting and evacuation
(b) Rear door of a fire tender for quick debussing by firemen
(c) A highly fire resistant door system that provides a degree of fire protection when closed
(d) None of the above
Q26. What is the full form of X-BIS ?
(a) X-ray Baggage Inspection System
(b) X-ray Baggage Imaging System
(c) X-ray Based Imaging System
(d) X-ray Baggage Identifying System
Q27. Access control of the Aircraft is the responsibility of
(a) ASG
(b) Local police
(c) Aircraft operator
(d) Airport security
Q28. Which one of the following is not a component of bomb detection and disposal equipment ?
(a) Bomb blanket
(b) Electronic stethoscope
(c) Bomb disposal suit
(d) Handheld weapon